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Post by Guest on May 12, 2016 21:58:47 GMT
Hello,
I'm just a bit unclear as to why, when adjusting from the short to medium run in the AD-AS model, expected prices rise faster than actual prices? If anyone can help clarify the reason behind it, that'd be much appreciated!
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Post by Oliver on May 12, 2016 22:24:26 GMT
Hi,
Do the following thought experiment:
There has been an outward shift of the AD curve and we're at a point where P^e<P (call this price level P1)
We know that in the medium run, we must reach a point where P^e=P (call this price level P2)
We also know that P2>P1 - because the AS curve has to shift up for output to return to its natural rate.
So: Actual prices have to get from P1 ---> P2 in the same time that expectations get from P^e<P1 ---> P^e=P2. Thus, expectations have to rise more than actual prices.
I hope this helps Best Oliver
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